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Posted by: icono1 1 year, 10 months ago
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Mdiar1 year, 10 months ago
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Grrrr my last comment on this wasn't posted, sorry if you end up with a double post here. Anyway what I said in the one I'm not seeing here is a sort of philosophical question, of sorts. Are we more right now to have it possible, if not likely, for a wealthy person to be convicted? Or were we more right when we were honest and just had the rich person pay a restitution to the poor person, which I believe was allowed in Hammurabi's Code? Just something to sort of think on.
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Mdiar1 year, 10 months ago
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Yes, your correct. There is no restitution for that, but at least then we were honest that if you were rich you'd get off scot-free really. Now its possible, just not likely while the justice system still promises equal justice. At least then it was honest, if wrong in the law. Now its right in the law but dishonest in how its applied.
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