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Posted by: Marquus 1 year, 4 months ago

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Marquus1 year, 4 months ago

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And just where does it say "in the Tanach or Brit Chadashah" that homosexuality is not a sin in and of itself?

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  Dionys1 year, 4 months ago
  
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  Are we talking Jewish law and interpretation or Christian? If you're talking Brit Chadashah, you're talking Orthodox Jew. Orthodox Jews tend to stone women who wear pants in Orthodox Jewish neighborhoods in Jerusalem. Today -- not two thousand years ago. Personally I'd rethink justifying an anti-homosexual stance based on the logic of people who stone women wearing pants.
  
  The original Hebrew is:
  V’et zachar lo tishkav mishk’vey eeshah toeyvah hee.
  
  Which translates to something like:
  And with a male you shall not lay lyings of a woman..this is "to-eyvah."
  
  In historical context what it probably means is that man should not have RITUAL an*l sex with another man during a pagan ritual. You have to remember that the societies that wrote these Biblical passages were high-context societies (where ours is a low-context society). You can google those terms if you're unfamiliar.
  
  Even if you take a more literal approach and interpret it in a 20th century setting, it speaks only of male on male an*l sex and says nothing about homosexuality or lesbians.
  
  Any further interpretation smacks of fitting your interpretation of the Bible into a political stance and moves away from literal interpretation.
  
  Read the entirety of Leviticus before you decide to start pouncing on 18:22. You might not want to follow every single other Levite rule and if you do not follow the other rules while shouting about 18:22 you're the worst kind of hypocrite.
  
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