Psalm 22 - Passage Lookup - New King James Version - BibleGateway.com »
Posted By cowboygrandpa 2 months, 2 weeks ago in ReligionA Psalm of David.
My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?Why are...
Psalm 22 is a profound lament psalm that concludes as a triumphant psalm of praise for God's deliverance. Although this psalm speaks of David's own distress and the Lord's deliverance of him, it also prophetically describes in remarkable detail Jesus' crucifixion and resurrection. The language David uses to describe his own predicament is prompted by the Holy Spirit. Thus it could span a thousand years to describe precisely the experiences of the Savior Jesus-both His excruciating death and victorious resurrection. See also Ps. 69, which predicts the emotional and spiritual suffering of Jesus. The title of Psalm 22 indicates that it was sung to the tune "The Deer of the Dawn." This lengthy poem has two main sections: (1) a description of the agony of impending death-an interplay of lament, confession, and petition (vv. 1); (2) an ecstatic celebration of great victory-a series of vows to praise God in the congregation (vv. 22).
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cowboygrandpa2 months, 2 weeks ago
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FTA:
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Psalm 22:16-18
"16 For dogs have surrounded Me;
The congregation of the wicked has enclosed Me.
They pierced[c] My hands and My feet;
17 I can count all My bones.
They look and stare at Me.
18 They divide My garments among them,
And for My clothing they cast lots."
This was written around 1000 years before Jesus Christ was crucified.
Jesus Christ fulfilled the prophecies of the coming Messiah.
From His birth from a virgin in Bethlehem to His death on the cross and His resurrection.
He is coming back again as the King He is.
Come soon Lord Jesus Christ.
Amen.-

Dionys2 months, 2 weeks ago
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Of course the original Hebrew doesn't say that, though. Isn't that unfortunate. It doesn't mean Christ wasn't the Messiah, or that he didn't fulfill the prophecies. But you should really know what it says in Hebrew, yes?
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L.16 says, in the Hebrew, "For dogs have surrounded me, a pack of evildoers has enclosed me, MY HANDS AND MY FEET ARE LIKE THE PREY OF A LION" The commentary from the Schottenstein Edition of the Hebrew (Ed. Rabbi Menachem Davis) says the original Hebrew says "Like [the prey of] a lion are my hands and my feet" (p53). It then goes on to explain that it means "my hands and feet are as if mangled by a lion's jaws (rashi). My hands are paralyzed so that I cannot defend myself, and mu feet so that I cannot escape (Ibn Ezra; R'Hirsch)" (p53).
Isn't it interesting what happens when you look at the original language and original meaning, rather than someone else's obviously changed-for-a-purpose 'translation.' You can look up the original translation pretty much anywhere. You can even buy yourself an inter-linear Hebrew/English book of Psalms. But of course you'll likely just 'neg' this and move on, claiming your translation is correct -- even though anyone who can read Hebrew will gladly show you where it is not.
Of course there is a controversy over this, depending on which texts you're consulting (there are two existing ones for this passage), and depending on the vowel pointing (which don't exist on the earlier manuscript). The "like the prey of a lion" reading is the typically Jewish reading.
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